Hematology Practice Exam
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1. In mature erythrocyte, the main purpose of produced NADPH is to be used in
(Required)
A. Prevention of oxidation of heme-iron
B. Reduction of glutathione
C. Modulating the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen
D. Modulation of 2,3 DPG production
E. synthesis of fatty acids
2. Which of the following pair of statements is not matched for the oxygen dissociation curve
(Required)
A. Increased Hb F – Shift to the left
B. Increased 2,3DPG – Shift to the right
C. High altitude- Shift to the right
D. Acidosis – Shift to the left
3. The Kleihauer-Betke test (acid-elution test) is used to detect
(Required)
A. Bite cells in peripheral blood of splenectomy subject
B. Heinz bodies in G6PDH deficiency
C. The presence of fetal blood in maternal circulation
D. Resistance of erythrocytes for hemolysis
4. Which of the following is the most mature normoblast
(Required)
A. Orthochromic normoblast
B. Basophilic normoblast
C. Pronormoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast
5. Anemia of chronic disease is characterized by all of these except:
(Required)
A. Low levels of serum iron
B. Reduced transferrin saturation
C. Reduced iron binding capacity
D. Increased serum ferritin
E. Decreased Hepcidin
6. A native of Thailand has a normal hemoglobin level. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at pH 8.6 showed 65% HbA and approximately 35% of a hemoglobin at HbA2 position. This is most consistent with hemoglobin
(Required)
A. Hb AC
B. Hb AE
C. Hb OA
D. Hb AD
7. Immunophenotyping for a diagnosis of PNH uses the following monoclonal antibodies: CD55 and CD59 CD11b/CD18 CD33 and CD34 CD56 and CD10
(Required)
A. CD55 and CD59
B. CD11b/CD18
C. CD33 and CD34
D. CD56 and CD10
8. Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated by using the following formula:
(Required)
A. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10
B. (Hct ÷ RBC) × 10
C. (Hct ÷ Hgb) × 100
D. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 100
9. If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 7% and Hct of 20%, what is the corrected reticulocyte count?
(Required)
A. 1.4%
B. 3.1%
C. 3.5%
D. 14%
10. Refer to the following illustration: Which area in the automated cell counter histogram represents the RBC distribution curve? A B C D E
(Required)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
11. In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a normal finding?
(Required)
A. 6 months–2 years
B. 4–6 years
C. 11–15 years
D. 40–60 years
12. Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink because of the formation of Hgb?
(Required)
A. Reticulocyte
B. Pronormoblast
C. Basophilic normoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast
13. Autoagglutination of RBCs at room temperature can cause which of the following abnormal test results?
(Required)
A. Low RBC count
B. High MCV
C. Low Hct
D. All of these options
14. Spherocytes differ from normal RBCs in all of the following except:
(Required)
A. Decreased surface to volume
B. No central pallor
C. Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline
D. Increased deformability
15. All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease except:
(Required)
A. Hgb C crystals
B. Target cells
C. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the β–chain
D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6
16. Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of the sickle cell trait?
(Required)
A. Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 35% Hgb F: 5%
B. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2%
C. Hgb A: 0% Hgb A2: 5% Hgb F: 95%
D. Hgb A: 80% Hgb S: 10% Hgb A2: 10%
17. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following except:
(Required)
A. Hemorrhage
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hemoglobinuria
D. Reticulocytopenia
18. Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
(Required)
A. Anti-I
B. Anti-i
C. Anti-M
D. Anti-P
19. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
(Required)
A. Target cells and Cabot rings
B. Toxic granulation and Döhle bodies
C. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
D. Schistocytes and NRBCs
20. A patient’s peripheral blood smear reveals numerous NRBCs, marked variation of RBC morphology, and pronounced polychromasia. In addition to decreased Hgb and decreased Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be anticipated?
(Required)
A. Reduced PLTs
B. Increased MCHC
C. Increased MCV
D. Decreased RDW
21. IDA may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by:
(Required)
A. Serum iron level
B. RBC morphology
C. RBC indices
D. TIBC
22. A patient has an Hct of 30%, an Hgb of 8 g/dL, and a RBC count of 4.0 × 1012/L. What is the morphological classification of this anemia?
(Required)
A. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Macrocytic, hypochromic
C. Microcytic, hypochromic
D. Normocytic, hyperchromic
23. Which of the following disorders is associated with ineffective erythropoiesis?
(Required)
A. G6PD deficiency
B. Liver disease
C. Hgb C disease
D. Megaloblastic anemia
24. Which of the following may be seen in the peripheral blood smear from a patient with obstructive liver disease?
(Required)
A. Schistocytes
B. Macrocytes
C. Howell–Jolly bodies
D. Microcytes
25. A patient has 80 NRBCs per 100 leukocytes. In addition to increased polychromasia on the peripheral blood smear, what other finding may be present on the CBC?
(Required)
A. Increased PLTs
B. Increased MCV
C. Increased Hct
D. Increased RBC count
26. Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
(Required)
A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine
D. Alkaline phosphatase
27. Qualitative and quantitative neutrophil changes noted in response to infection include all of the following except:
(Required)
A. Neutrophilia
B. Pelgeroid hyposegmentation
C. Toxic granulation
D. Vacuolization
28. The morphological characteristic(s) associated with Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is (are):
(Required)
A. Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions
B. Giant lysosomal granules
C. Small, dark-staining granules and condensed nuclei
D. Nuclear hyposegmentation
29. The familial condition of Pelger–Huët anomaly is important to recognize because this disorder must be differentiated from:
(Required)
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. May–Hegglin anomaly
C. A shift-to-the-left increase in immature granulocytes
D. G6PD deficiency
30. Neutrophil phagocytosis and particle ingestion are associated with an increase in O2 utilization called respiratory burst. What are the two most important products of this biochemical reaction?
(Required)
A. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and superoxide anion (O2–)
B. Lactoferrin and NADPH oxidase
C. Cytochrome b and collagenase
D. Alkaline phosphatase and ascorbic acid
31. Auer rods may be seen in all of the following except:
(Required)
A. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4)
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
C. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation (AML:M1)
D. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (PML; M3
32. Refer to the following illustration: Which area in the automated cell counter histogram represents the lymphocyte curve? A B C D E
(Required)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
33. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?
(Required)
A. Acute myeloid leukemia, without maturation
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (PML)
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia
34. A 24-year-old man with Down syndrome presents with fever, pallor, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. His CBC results are as follows: WBC = 10.8 × 109/L, RBC = 1.56 × 1012/L, 8% PMNs, Hgb = 3.3 g/dL, 25% lymphocytes, Hct = 11%, 67% PAS-positive blasts PLT = 2.5 × 109/L These findings are suggestive of:
(Required)
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Myeloproliferative disorder
C. Leukemoid reaction
D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
35. SITUATION: A peripheral blood smear shows 75% blasts. These stain positive for both Sudan Black B (SBB) and peroxidase. Given these values, which of the following disorders is most likely?
(Required)
A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
B. CML
C. Acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL)
D. ALL
36. In myeloid cells, the stain that selectively identifies phospholipid in the membranes of both primary and secondary granules is:
(Required)
A. PAS
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. SBB
D. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
37. Sodium fluoride may be added to the naphthyl ASD acetate (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride is added to inhibit a positive reaction with:
(Required)
A. Megakaryocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Granulocytes
38. Which of the following reactions are often positive in ALL but are negative in AML?
(Required)
A. TdT and PAS
B. Chloroacetate esterase and nonspecific esterase
C. SBB and peroxidase
D. New methylene blue and acid phosphatase
39. A patient’s peripheral blood smear and bone marrow both show 70% blasts. These cells are negative on SBB staining. Given these data, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(Required)
A. AML
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
C. Acute PML
D. ALL
40. The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?
(Required)
A. At least 30%
B. At least 20%
C. At least 10%
D. Any percentage
41. What would be the most likely designation by the WHO for AML M2 by the FAB classification?
(Required)
A. AML with t(15;17)
B. AML with mixed lineage
C. AML with t(8;21)
D. AML with inv(16)
42. The large cell indicated by the arrow in the photomicrograph is Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte
(Required)
A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte
43. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining performed on a patient gives the following results: 10(0) 48(1+) 38(2+) 3(3+) 1(4+) Calculate the LAP score.
(Required)
A. 100
B. 117
C. 137
D. 252
44. CML is distinguished from leukemoid reaction by which of the following?
(Required)
A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP
B. CML: high LAP; leukemoid: low LAP
C. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: normal WBC
D. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: higher WBC
45. What is the characteristic finding seen in the peripheral blood smear from a patient with multiple myeloma?
(Required)
A. Microcytic hypochromic cells
B. Intracellular inclusion bodies
C. Rouleaux
D. Hypersegmented neutrophils
46. Cells that exhibit positive staining with acid phosphatase and are not inhibited by tartaric acid are characteristically seen in:
(Required)
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Infectious lymphocytosis
C. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL)
D. T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia
47. A 19-year-old man came to the emergency department with severe joint pain, fatigue, cough, and fever. Review the following laboratory results: WBCs 21.0 × 109/L, RBCs 3.23 × 1012/L, Hgb 9.6 g/dL, PLT 252 × 109/L Differential: 17 band neutrophils; 75 segmented neutrophils; 5 lymphocytes; 2 monocytes; 1 eosinophil; 26 NRBCs. What is the corrected WBC count?
(Required)
A. 8.1 × 109/L
B. 16.7 × 109/L
C. 21.0 × 109/L
D. 80.8 × 109/L
48. A manual WBC count is performed. Eighty WBCs are counted in the four large corner squares of a Neubauer hemacytometer. The dilution is 1:100. What is the total WBC count?
(Required)
A. 4.0 × 109/L
B. 8.0 × 109/L
C. 20.0 × 109/L
D. 200.0 × 109/L
49. Review the scatterplot of WBCs shown. Which section of the scatterplot denotes the number of monocytes?
(Required)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
50. A 25-year-old woman presented with symptoms of jaundice, acute cholecystitis, and an enlarged spleen. On investigation, numerous gallstones were discovered. Review the following CBC results: WBC = 11.1 × 109/L MCV = 100 fL RBC = 3.33 × 1012/L MCH = 34.5 pg Hgb = 11.5 g/dL MCHC = 37.5% Hct = 31.6 mL/dL PLT = 448 × 109/L WBC differential: 13 band neutrophils; 65 segmented neutrophils; 15 lymphocytes; 6 monocytes; 1 eosinophil RBC morphology: 3+ spherocytes, 1+ polychromasia What follow-up laboratory test would provide valuable information for this patient?
(Required)
A. Osmotic fragility test
B. Hgb electrophoresis
C. G6PD assay
D. Methemoglobin reduction test
51. False-positive results may occur in the screening solubility test for hemoglobin S due to
(Required)
A. decreased plasma proteins
B. hypolipidemia
C. adding more blood to the reagent than calléd for by test procedure
D. a hemoglobin value of less than 7.0 g/dL
52. Which of the following contain RNA and are usually identified by staining with brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue?
(Required)
A. Auer rods
B. Reticulocytes
C. Siderotic granules
D. Howell-Jolly bodies
53. Which characteristic differentiates the myelocyte from other myelocytic cells?
(Required)
A. A kidney-bean-shaped nucleus
B. Presence of coarse nuclear chromatin
C. Presence of nucleoli
D. Appearance of specific granules
54. Many schistocytes are seen on a peripheral blood smear. One of the most common causes for these cells is
(Required)
A. presence of an abnormal hemoglobin
B. high-titer cold agglutinins
C. deficiency of spectrin
D. microangiopathic anemia
55. Which one of the following hypochromic anemias is usually associated with a normal free erythrocyte protoporphyrin level?
(Required)
A. anemia of chronic disease
B. iron deficiency
C. lead poisoning
D. thalassemia minor
56. The background of a peripheral blood smear stained with Romanowskytype stain appears very blue. The RBCs are stacked like coins. Fifteen percent of the WBCs are the size of a small lymphocyte with very blue cytoplasm. The nucleus is eccentric and there is a clear area next to it. These cells should be reported as
(Required)
A. nucleated RBCs
B. blasts
C. plasma cells
D. micromegakaryocytes
57. Specimens for leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain will yield the most reliable results if smears are made from
(Required)
A. blood anticoagulated with EDTA
B. blood anticoagulated with 3.2% sodium citrate
C. a finger stick and stored at room temperature for 24h
D. capillary blood and stained immediately
58. Refer to the following illustration: Which curve represents the production of gamma polypeptide chains of hemoglobin? A B C D
(Required)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
59. All of the findings listed below may be seen in acquired hemolytic anemias of the autoimmune variety. The one considered to be the most characteristic is:
(Required)
A. increased osmotic fragility
B. leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
C. peripheral spherocytosis
D. positive direct antiglobulin test
60. Which of the following are found in association with megaloblastic anemia?
(Required)
A. neutropenia and thrombocytopenia
B. decreased LD activity
C. increased erythrocyte folate levels
D. decreased plasma bilirubin levels
61. The M:E ratio in erythroleukemia is usually:
(Required)
A. normal
B. high
C. low
D. variable
62. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hemoglobin H?
(Required)
A. it is a tetramer of beta chains
B. it is relatively unstable and thermolabile
C. electrophoretically, it represents a “fast” hemoglobin
D. its oxygen affinity is lower than that of hemoglobin A
63. When using an electronic cell counter, which of the following results can occur in the presence of a cold agglutinin?
(Required)
A. increased MCV and decreased RBC
B. increased MCV and normal RBC
C. decreased MCV and increased MCHC
D. decreased MCV and RBC
64. Which of the following stains can be used to differentiate siderotic granules (Pappenheimer bodies) from basophilic stippling?
(Required)
A. Wright
B. Prussian blue
C. Crystal violet
D. periodic acid-Schiff
65. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is a marker found on:
(Required)
A. hairy cells
B. myeloblasts
C. monoblasts
D. Lymphoblast
66. The Philadelphia chromosome is formed by a translocation between the:
(Required)
A. long arm of chromosome 22 and long arm of chromosome 9
B. long arm of chromosome 21 and long arm of chromosome 9
C. long arm of chromosome 21 and short arm of chromosome 6
D. long arm of chromosome 22 and short arm of chromosome 6
67. Which of the following is associated with pseudo-Pelger-Huét anomaly?
(Required)
A. aplastic anemia
B. iron deficiency anemia i
C. Myelogenous leukemia
D. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
68. Increased numbers of basophils are often seen in:
(Required)
A. acute infections
B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)
69. Which of the following is most closely associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia?
(Required)
A. Ringed sideroblasts
B. disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. micromegakaryocytes
D. Philadelphia chromosome
70. Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions?
(Required)
A. membrane defect of lysosomes
B. Doéhle bodies and giant platelets
C. two-lobed neutrophils
D. mucopolysaccharidosis
71. patient has the following blood values: RBC: 6.5 x 109/uL Hgb: 13.0 g/dL Hct: 39.0% MCV: 65 fL MCH: 21.5 Pg MCHC: 33% These results are compatible with:
(Required)
A. iron deficiency
B. pregnancy
C. thalassemia minor
D. beta thalassemia major
72. Refer to the following pattern Which pattern is consistent with beta-thalassemia major?
(Required)
A. patternA
B. pattern B
C. pattern C
D. pattern D
73. Which of the following is associated with May-Hegglin anomaly?
(Required)
A. membrane defect of lysosomes
B. Dohle bodies and giant platelets
C. myelogenous leukemia
D. mucopolysaccharidosis
74. Of the following, the disease most closely associated with glucocerebrosidase deficiency is:
(Required)
A. Gaucher disease
B. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
C. Pelger-Huét anomaly
D. May-Hegglin anomaly
75. Patients with chronic granulomatous disease suffer from frequent pyogenic infections due to the inability of:
(Required)
A. lymphocytes to produce bacterial antibodies
B. eosinophils to degranulate in the presence of bacteria.
C. Neutrophils to kill phagocytized bacteria
D. basophils to release histamine in the presence of bacteria
76. A clotted EDTA tube can be used to perform a(n)
(Required)
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. Solubility test for hemoglobin S
C. Hematocrit
D. Platelet count
77. Cytochemical stains were performed on bone marrow smears from an acute leukemia patient. All blasts were periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) negative. The majority of the blasts showed varying amounts of Sudan black B positivity. Some of the blasts stained positive for naphthol AS-D acetate esterase, some were positive for naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase, and some blasts _ stained positive for both esterases. What type of leukemia is indicated?
(Required)
A. lymphocytic
B. myelogenous
C. myelomonocytic
D. erythroleukemia
78. The myeloid progenitor cell can produce cells committed to
(Required)
A. Granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic, or megakaryocytic lineages
B. Granulocytic, monocytic, lymphocytic,or megakaryocytic lineages
C. Erythrocytic, granulocytic, monocytic,or lymphocytic lineages
D. Erythrocytic, granulocytic, lymphocytic,or megakaryocytic lineages
79. When acanthocytes are found on the blood smear, it is usually the result of
(Required)
A. Abnormal membrane permeability
B. Altered membrane lipids
C. Mechanical trauma
D. Polymerization of hemoglobinMolecules
80. Refer to the following illustration: Which area in the automated cell counter histogram represents the platelets curve? A B C D E
(Required)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
81. In regard to variant hemoglobin E, α2β2 26Glu→Lys , ,which of the following statements is false?
(Required)
A. There are two normal alpha chains.
B. Glutamic acid replaces lysine onposition 26 of the beta chains.
C. Hemoglobin E is the second mostcommon hemoglobin variant known.
D. Glutamic acid is normally found atposition 26 of the beta chain.
82. A cellulose acetate hemoglobin electrophoresis (alkaline pH), performed on the blood of a stillborn infant, revealed asingle band that migrated farther towardthe anode than did the Hb A control. Whatis the most likely composition of thestillborn infant's hemoglobin?
(Required)
A. Four beta chains
B. Four gamma chains
C. Two alpha and two beta chains
D. Two alpha and two gamma chains
83. A cellulose acetate electrophoresisrevealed a large band of hemoglobin inthe hemoglobin S position. This band quantified at 95%. The peripheral smear revealed 70% target cells, and the solubility test was negative. Based on this information, what is the hemoglobin?
(Required)
A. Hemoglobin C
B. Hemoglobin D
C. Hemoglobin E
D. Hemoglobin S
84. A clinical laboratory scientist received a 5 mL EDTA tube that contained 0.5 mLof anticoagulated blood. A smear was prepared and stained with Wright's stain.When examined microscopically, the majority of cells appeared to have many evenly distributed, blunt spicules on thesurface. How should this cellular appearance be interpreted?
(Required)
A. An anemic condition requiring furthertesting
B. Spur cells caused by using incorrecttechnique during slide preparation
C. Artifact caused by a dirty spreaderslide
D. Crenated cells caused by incorrect blood to anticoagulant ratio
85. Coarse PAS positivity may be found in the leukemic cells of
(Required)
A. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (FABtype Ml)
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (FABtype LI)
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia(FAB type M4)
D. Acute monocytic leukemia (FABtype M5)
86. Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase(specific) is usually positive incells, and alphanaphthylacetate esterase (nonspecific)is useful for identifying blast cells oflineage.
(Required)
A. Granulocytic; monocytic
B. Monocytic; granulocytic
C. Granulocytic; lymphocytic
D. Monocytic; lymphocytic
87. A bone marrow with 90% cellularity and myeloid:erythroid (M:E) ratio of 10:1 ismost characteristic of
(Required)
A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B. Primary polycythemia
C. Beta-thalassemia major
D. Aplastic anemia
88. Which of the following is not a characteristicfinding in polycythemia vera?
(Required)
A. Blood pancytosis
B. Increased red cell mass
C. Increased erythropoietin level
D. Increased blood viscosity
89. To best preserve cellular morphology,differential smears from an EDTAspecimen should be made no more thanhour(s) after collection.
(Required)
A. 1
B. 5
C. 12
D. 24
90. The components of Wright's stain include
(Required)
A. Crystal violet and safranin
B. Brilliant green and neutral red
C. New methylene blue and carbolfuchsin
D. Methylene blue and eosin
91. Which of the following red cell inclusionsstain with both Perl's Prussian blue andWright's stain?
(Required)
A. Howell-Jolly bodies
B. Basophilic stippling
C. Pappenheimer bodies
D. Heinz bodies
92. What is the depth between the countingplatform and the coverslip on a hemacytometer?
(Required)
A. 0.01mm
B. 0.10mm
C. 1.00mm
D. 0.1 cm
93. Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure
(Required)
A. Cell size
B. Cytoplasmic granularity
C. Cell number
D. Immunologic (antigenic) identification
94. Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is:
(Required)
A. temperature-dependent
B. complement-independent | .
C. antibody-mediated
D. caused by a red cell membrane defect
95. Which of the following can differentiate metamyelocytes from other stages of granulocyte maturation?
(Required)
A. Presence of specific granules
B. Indentation of nucleus
C. Absence of nucleoli
D. Color of cytoplasm
96. A patient has a WBC count of 150.0 x 10°/L. On the 100-cell differential, 10% of the cells exhibit a slightly off-center nucleus with a fine chromatin pattern. Several of these cells have nucleoli. The cytoplasm is dark blue with red granules that cover the nucleus. These cells are most likely
(Required)
A. atypical lymphocytes
B. myelocytes
C. promyelocytes
D. myeloblasts
97. What protein is commonly defective in hereditary elliptocytosis Ankyrin Spectrin Band 4.1 Elliptocin
(Required)
A. Ankyrin
B. Spectrin
C. Band 4.1
D. Elliptocin
98. The red blood cells in this image is representative of an anemia that is Microcytic, hypochromic Megaloblastic macrocytic Normocytic, normochromic Myelodysplastic
(Required)
A. Microcytic, hypochromic
B. Megaloblastic macrocytic
C. Normocytic, normochromic
D. Myelodysplastic
99. Which area in the histogram shown for an automated hematology analyzer represents the RBCs distribution curve a b c d
(Required)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
100. Inclusions in the cytoplasm of neutrophils as shown in the photomicrograph are known as Auer rods Howell-Jolly bodies Heinz-Bodies Dohle bodies
(Required)
A. Auer rods
B. Howell-Jolly bodies
C. Heinz-Bodies
D. Dohle bodies